BCEN Certified Pediatric Emergency Nurse Practice Test

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BCEN Certified Pediatric Emergency Nurse
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Question: 1
Which of the following is a triage priority category based on acuity and resources in a pediatric emergency setting?
1. Priority 1 - Immediate
2. Priority 2 - Emergent
riority 4 - Non-urgent
wer: A
anation: Priority 1 - Immediate is a triage priority category based on a esources in a pediatric emergency setting. This category is assigned t nts with life-threatening conditions who require immediate interventio ave the highest priority for limited resources. Priority 2 - Emergent, ity 3 - Urgent, and Priority 4 - Non-urgent are also triage priority
gories but reflect lower acuity and urgency compared to Priority 1.
stion: 2
ild suspected of having a highly contagious infectious disease is brou mergency department. In order to prevent the spread of the disease, th should implement which isolation precaution?
Priority 3 - Urgent
3. P
Ans
Expl cuity
and r o
patie n
and h Prior cate
Que
A ch ght to
the e e
nurse
1. Droplet isolation
2. Airborne isolation
3. Contact isolation
4. Standard precautions
Answer: B
Explanation: Airborne isolation is used to prevent the transmission of highly contagious airborne diseases. It involves placing the patient in a negative pressure room and using respiratory protection for healthcare providers. Droplet isolation is used for diseases spread through respiratory droplets, contact isolation is used for diseases spread through direct contact, and standard precautions are used for general infection control measures.
stion: 3
usy pediatric emergency department, the nurse is responsible for tria nts based on their acuity and available resources. Which of the follow nts would be the highest priority for immediate medical intervention?
2-year-old with a minor laceration on their finger 6-year-old with a suspected fracture of the arm
n 8-year-old with a fever and respiratory distress 10-year-old with a sprained ankle and mild pain
wer: C
anation: Triage priority is determined by the acuity of the patient's ition and the available resources. In this scenario, the 8-year-old with and respiratory distress is likely experiencing a more severe illness o tion, requiring immediate medical intervention to address the respirat
Que
In a b ging
patie ing
patie
1. A
2. A
3. A
4. A
Ans Expl
cond a
fever r
infec ory
distress. The other options describe less urgent conditions or injuries.
Question: 4
When assessing a pediatric patient's pain, which of the following is a recommended non-pharmacological intervention?
1. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
2. Intranasal fentanyl
3. Patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)
4. Distraction techniques Answer: D
macological intervention for pediatric patients experiencing pain. action techniques divert the child's attention away from the painful ulus, reducing their perception of pain. Examples of distraction techni de interactive toys, games, music, storytelling, or deep breathing exer steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), intranasal fentanyl, and nt-controlled analgesia (PCA) are pharmacological interventions used
anagement and are not classified as non-pharmacological interventi
stion: 5
ng the history and physical assessment of a child in the emergency rtment, the nurse performs the primary survey. Which of the followin part of the primary survey?
etermining the child's developmental milestones valuation of circulation and hemorrhage control ssessment of airway and breathing
uick assessment of disability or neurological status
Explanation: Distraction techniques are recommended as a non- phar
Distr
stim ques
inclu cises.
Non
patie for
pain m ons.
Que
Duri
depa g is
NOT
1. D
2. E
3. A
4. Q
Answer: A
Explanation: The primary survey is the initial assessment performed to identify and address life-threatening conditions. It consists of assessing the airway and breathing, evaluating circulation and hemorrhage control, and conducting a
quick assessment of disability or neurological status. Determining the child's developmental milestones is not part of the primary survey, but rather falls under the secondary survey which focuses on a more comprehensive assessment of the child's condition.
Question: 6
ving multiple injured children simultaneously. The nurse's immediate ity is to:
tabilize the most critically injured children obilize additional healthcare providers ecure additional supplies and equipment nitiate triage and assign acuity levels
wer: D
anation: In a mass casualty event, the immediate priority for the nurse te triage and assign acuity levels to prioritize care based on the severit ies. This allows for efficient allocation of resources and immediate tion to the most critically injured children. Mobilizing additional hcare providers, securing supplies, and stabilizing the most critically ed children are subsequent actions that follow the initiation of triage.
stion: 7
A mass casualty event has occurred, and the pediatric emergency department is recei
prior
1. S
2. M
3. S
4. I
Ans
Expl is to
initia y of
injur atten healt injur
Que
During a pediatric emergency assessment, the nurse uses the Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT) to gather important information about the child's condition. Which of the following components is NOT part of the PAT?
1. Appearance
2. Work of breathing
3. Mobility
4. Circulation Answer: C
all condition. Mobility is not part of the PAT and is not specifically sed using this framework.
stion: 8
context of emergency preparedness, what does EMTALA stand for? mergency Mass Triage and Logistics Administration
mergency Management and Triage for All
mergency Medicine Training and Accreditation Liability Act mergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act
wer: D
anation: EMTALA stands for Emergency Medical Treatment and Acti Labor Act. It is a federal law in the United States that requires hospitals w gency departments to provide appropriate medical screening, stabiliza ransfer of patients, regardless of their ability to pay or insurance statu
Explanation: The Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT) consists of three components: Appearance, Work of Breathing, and Circulation. These components are assessed to quickly gather critical information about the child's over
asses Que In the
1. E
2. E
3. E
4. E
Ans
Expl ve
ith
emer tion,
and t s.
EMTALA ensures that individuals seeking emergency medical care receive necessary treatment and are not denied care based on financial considerations. The other options listed do not accurately represent the acronym EMTALA.
Question: 9
In the context of pediatric emergency care, which of the following legal issues
is related to the preservation of forensic evidence?
1. Consent for treatment
2. Chain of custody
3. Government regulations
4. HIPAA compliance
wer: B
anation: Chain of custody is the legal issue related to the preservation nsic evidence in the context of pediatric emergency care. Chain of cust to the documentation and control of evidence from the time it is coll
it is presented in court. It ensures that the evidence is properly handle d, and protected to maintain its integrity and admissibility in legal eedings. Consent for treatment, government regulations, and HIPAA pliance are important legal issues in pediatric emergency care but are n tly related to the preservation of forensic evidence.
stion: 10
context of pediatric emergency care, which of the following situatio idered mandatory reportable?
child with a suspected fracture child with a common cold
Ans
Expl of
fore ody
refers ected
until d,
store proc
com ot
direc
Que
In the ns is
cons
1. A
2. A
3. A child with a minor abrasion
4. A child with suspected child abuse/neglect Answer: D
Explanation: Suspected child abuse/neglect is considered a mandatory reportable situation in pediatric emergency care. Healthcare professionals are
legally obligated to report suspected cases of child abuse or neglect to the appropriate authorities for further investigation and protection of the child. Suspected fractures, common colds, and minor abrasions do not fall under mandatory reporting requirements unless there are additional concerns of abuse or neglect associated with these conditions.
Question: 11
art of the history and physical assessment, the nurse gathers informati a child's developmental milestones. Which of the following stateme developmental milestones is accurate?
evelopmental milestones are uniform and occur at the same age for al ren.
evelopmental milestones provide a definitive diagnosis of developme ys.
evelopmental milestones are not useful in assessing children with spe s.
evelopmental milestones encompass physical, cognitive, and social- ional skills.
wer: D
anation: Developmental milestones are skills or abilities that most chil ccomplish by a certain age range. They encompass physical, cognitiv ocial-emotional skills. However, it's important to note that developme
As p on
about nts
about
1. D l
child
2. D ntal
dela
3. D cial
need
4. D
emot Ans
Expl dren
can a e,
and s ntal
milestones are general guidelines and individual children may reach milestones at different times. They do not provide a definitive diagnosis of developmental delays or disabilities but serve as a framework for monitoring a child's growth and development, including children with special needs.
Question: 12
In the context of brain death testing on a child, which of the following findings is confirmatory?
1. Absence of respiratory effort and PaCO2 ≥ 60 mm Hg
2. Electroencephalogram (EEG) revealing low-voltage amplitude
3. Doll's eyes and absent gag reflex
wer: A
anation: The absence of respiratory effort and an arterial partial press on dioxide (PaCO2) level of 60 mm Hg or higher is a confirmatory fin rain death in children. Brain death is diagnosed based on a comprehen cal evaluation and confirmatory tests. The absence of respiratory effor ates loss of the brainstem's ability to control breathing, and a high Pa reflects the inability to compensate for rising carbon dioxide levels. T
options listed are not specific to brain death and do not provide rmatory evidence for this diagnosis.
stion: 13
ng the secondary survey of a child in the emergency department, the n ses the child's behavioral status and risk for harm. Which of the follo d be considered a risk-taking behavior?
rying and expressing fear or distress
Presence of nystagmus and oculovestibular reflexes Ans
Expl ure of
carb ding
for b sive
clini t
indic CO2
level he
other confi
Que
Duri urse
asses wing
woul
1. C
2. Engaging in age-appropriate play activities
3. Seeking comfort from a caregiver
4. Displaying aggressive or violent behavior Answer: D
or danger to oneself or others. Displaying aggressive or violent behavior would be considered a risk-taking behavior. Crying and expressing fear or distress, engaging in age-appropriate play activities, and seeking comfort from a caregiver are not risk-taking behaviors but rather normal responses or coping mechanisms in certain situations.
Question: 14
ng the assessment of a child in the emergency department, the nurse ers information about the child's sexual orientation and gender identit
is the primary reason for assessing these aspects of the child's identit
ensure appropriate social support is provided during the hospital sta determine if the child's sexual orientation or gender identity is relate
resenting complaint
identify potential risk factors for self-harm or suicidal ideation assess the child's understanding of sexual and reproductive health
ation
wer: C
anation: Assessing a child's sexual orientation and gender identity is rtant to identify potential risk factors for self-harm or suicidal ideatio TQ+ youth may face unique challenges and higher rates of mental he erns, so understanding their sexual orientation and gender identity can
Duri
gath y.
What y?
1. To y
2. To d to
the p
3. To
4. To
educ
Ans Expl
impo n.
LGB alth
conc help
healthcare providers provide appropriate support and interventions. It is not primarily done to ensure social support during the hospital stay, determine the relationship to the presenting complaint, or assess sexual and reproductive health education.
Which of the following milestones is typically achieved by a 12-month-old child?
1. Babbling consonant sounds
2. Crawling
3. Rolling from back to front
wer: D
anation: Walking independently is a milestone typically achieved by a h-old child. Most children begin walking between the ages of 9 and 1 hs, with 12 months being an average age for this developmental miles wling usually occurs earlier in infancy (around 7-9 months), rolling fro
to front is typically achieved around 4to 6 months, and babbling onant sounds is a milestone seen around 6 to 9 months.
stion: 16
ch of the following assessment tools is most appropriate for evaluating vioral status and risk for harm in a pediatric patient?
lasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
ediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT) ong-Baker FACES Pain Rating Scale
Walking independently Ans
Expl 12-
mont 5
mont tone.
Cra m
back cons
Que
Whi the
beha
1. G
2. P
3. W
4. Modified Rankin Scale (mRS)
Answer: B
Explanation: The most appropriate assessment tool for evaluating the behavioral status and risk for harm in a pediatric patient is the Pediatric
Assessment Triangle (PAT). The PAT is a rapid visual assessment tool used to identify children who are seriously ill or injured. It evaluates three key components: appearance, work of breathing, and circulation to the skin. By observing the child's general appearance, breathing effort, and skin color, clinicians can quickly determine if the child is sick or not sick and prioritize their care accordingly. The other options listed are not specific to assessing behavioral status and risk for harm in pediatric patients.
stion: 17
-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a high fe re headache, and neck stiffness. The pediatric nurse suspects meningit erforms a visual assessment to determine the child's overall condition ch of the following findings would indicate that the child is "sick" rath
not sick"?
miling and making eye contact with the nurse ildly flushed cheeks and warm skin
apid breathing and increased work of breathing ctive and playful behavior
wer: C
anation: In a visual assessment, the nurse evaluates the child's overall arance to determine if they are "sick" or "not sick." Rapid breathing a
Que
A 12 ver,
seve is
and p .
Whi er
than "
1. S
2. M
3. R
4. A
Ans Expl
appe nd
increased work of breathing indicate respiratory distress, which is a sign of illness and suggests a more severe condition. The other options (smiling and making eye contact, mildly flushed cheeks and warm skin, active and playful behavior) may be seen in children who are not acutely ill and would suggest a "not sick" status.
Question: 18
During a mass casualty incident involving chemical or biological agents, which of the following is the primary goal of decontamination?
1. Eliminate all traces of the contaminant from the environment
2. Neutralize the toxic effects of the contaminant
3. Provide immediate medical treatment to affected individuals
wer: D
anation: During a mass casualty incident involving chemical or biolog ts, the primary goal of decontamination is to prevent the spread of the aminant to unaffected areas. Decontamination involves removing or alizing the contaminant from exposed individuals and their belonging mize the risk of further contamination. It is essential to establish a ntamination area where affected individuals can be safely and efficien ntaminated before entering treatment areas. The other options listed d ess the primary goal of decontamination during a mass casualty incide
stion: 19
event of a chemical or biological agent exposure, the nurse plays a
al role in decontamination. Which of the following actions is NOT a p decontamination process?
Prevent the spread of the contaminant to unaffected areas Ans
Expl ical
agen cont
neutr s to
mini
deco tly
deco o not
addr nt.
Que
In the
cruci art
of the
1. Removing contaminated clothing and jewelry
2. Administering an antidote medication
3. Applying a chemical neutralizing agent to the skin
4. Flushing the affected area with copious amounts of water Answer: B
Explanation: The decontamination process involves removing contaminated clothing and jewelry, flushing the affected area with copious amounts of water, and applying a chemical neutralizing agent to the skin if appropriate. Administering an antidote medication is not part of the decontamination process but rather a medical treatment specific to the toxic effects of the chemical or biological agent.

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