Latest PDF of OCS: Certified Ophthalmology Coder

Certified Ophthalmology Coder Practice Test

OCS test Format | Course Contents | Course Outline | test Syllabus | test Objectives

Test Detail:
The OCS (Ophthalmic Coding Specialist) test is conducted to certify individuals who possess the knowledge and skills required to accurately assign medical codes for ophthalmic procedures and services. The test evaluates the candidate's understanding of coding guidelines, reimbursement policies, and ophthalmic terminology.

Course Outline:
The course for the OCS certification covers various courses related to ophthalmic coding. The following is a general outline of the key areas covered:

1. Introduction to Ophthalmic Coding:
- Overview of the role of an Ophthalmic Coding Specialist.
- Understanding the purpose and importance of accurate medical coding.
- Familiarization with coding systems and guidelines specific to ophthalmology, such as CPT, ICD-10, and HCPCS.

2. Ophthalmic Terminology and Anatomy:
- Understanding ophthalmic anatomy and physiology.
- Learning common ophthalmic conditions and diseases.
- Familiarization with ophthalmic terminology and abbreviations.

3. Coding Guidelines and Documentation:
- Understanding coding guidelines and conventions.
- Reviewing documentation requirements for ophthalmic procedures and services.
- Identifying key elements necessary for accurate coding and reimbursement.

4. Ophthalmic Coding Systems:
- Understanding the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) coding system.
- Familiarization with the International Classification of Diseases (ICD) coding system.
- Learning the Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS).

5. Evaluation and Management (E/M) Services:
- Understanding the E/M coding guidelines specific to ophthalmology.
- Identifying the key components of E/M services and assigning appropriate codes.
- Reviewing documentation requirements for E/M services.

6. Surgical Procedures and Services:
- Coding for common ophthalmic surgical procedures, such as cataract surgery, corneal transplant, and glaucoma procedures.
- Understanding modifiers and their application in ophthalmic coding.
- Familiarization with surgical documentation requirements.

7. Diagnostic Testing and Imaging:
- Coding for ophthalmic diagnostic tests and imaging procedures, including visual field tests, optical coherence tomography (OCT), and fundus photography.
- Familiarization with coding guidelines and documentation requirements for diagnostic testing.

Exam Objectives:
The OCS test focuses on evaluating the candidate's knowledge and understanding of the following key areas:

1. Ophthalmic Coding Guidelines and Conventions
2. Ophthalmic Terminology and Anatomy
3. Evaluation and Management (E/M) Services Coding
4. Surgical Procedures and Services Coding
5. Diagnostic Testing and Imaging Coding
6. Reimbursement Policies and Regulations

Exam Syllabus:
The test syllabus for the OCS certification provides a detailed breakdown of the courses covered in each test objective. It includes sub-topics, coding scenarios, and specific coding guidelines that candidates should be familiar with. The syllabus may cover the following areas:

- Ophthalmic surgical procedures and coding
- Ophthalmic diagnostic testing and imaging procedures
- Evaluation and management (E/M) coding in ophthalmology
- Coding guidelines and conventions specific to ophthalmology
- Reimbursement policies and regulations for ophthalmic coding

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Category: Medical & Healthcare
OCS
Ophthalmic Coding Specialist 2025
https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/OCS
Question: 1080
VUs are fixed amounts regardless of location and specialty
VUs are solely determined by the complexity of the surgical procedur ormed
VUs are adjusted based on GPCI, accounting for the cost of living an ice expenses in specific geographic areas
VUs are calculated only based on the provider�s historical billing patt wer: C
anation: RVUs are calculated using a formula that includes three ponents: the work RVU, the practice expense RVU, and the malpracti
which are then adjusted based on the GPCI to reflect regional differ st.
stion: 1081
characteristic finding would most likely be observed in a patient wit
In the context of the Medicare Physician Fee Schedule (MPFS), which of the following best describes how the relative value units (RVUs) are calculated for ophthalmic services, considering the geographical practice cost index (GPCI)?
1. R
2. R e
perf
3. R d
pract
4. R erns
Ans Expl
com ce
RVU, ences
in co
Que
What h
early-stage age-related macular degeneration during a fundus examination?
1. Subretinal neovascularization
2. Geographic atrophy
3. Drusen in the macula
4. Vitreous hemorrhage
Answer: C
Explanation: Drusen in the macula are early signs of age-related macular degeneration, indicating the beginning stages of this degenerative condition.
Question: 1082
ician plans to perform a YAG laser capsulotomy. What should be cod his procedure?
6830
6821
6821
6840
wer: B
anation: The procedure for YAG laser capsulotomy is coded as 66821 h specifically addresses the treatment for posterior capsule opacificati
stion: 1083
role do "incident-to" services play in the billing of ophthalmic servic the MPFS, especially concerning non-physician providers?
After cataract surgery, a patient develops posterior capsule opacification. The phys ed
for t
1. 6
2. 6
3. 6
4. 6
Ans
Expl ,
whic on.
Que
What es
under
1. Incident-to services are not applicable in ophthalmology
2. Incident-to billing allows non-physician providers to bill for services under the supervising physician�s NPI, provided certain criteria are met
3. Incident-to services can only be billed for procedures, not for evaluation and management services
4. Non-physician providers cannot bill under any circumstances in a physician�s practice
Answer: B
Explanation: Incident-to services enable non-physician providers to bill for certain services under the supervising physician�s NPI, allowing for expanded service provision under specific conditions.
tient is diagnosed with acute angle-closure glaucoma. Which mechani ving the iris and pupil contributes to this condition?
he iris obstructs aqueous humor outflow he pupil constricts excessively
he lens dislocates forward he vitreous body liquefies
wer: A
anation: In acute angle-closure glaucoma, the peripheral iris obstructs cular meshwork, preventing aqueous humor from draining, leading to ased intraocular pressure and potential vision loss.
stion: 1085
tient diagnosed with retinoblastoma undergoes treatment but develops
Question: 1084
A pa sm
invol
1. T
2. T
3. T
4. T
Ans
Expl the
trabe incre
Que
A pa a
secondary tumor 10 years later. Which of the following secondary malignancies is most commonly associated with previous retinoblastoma?
1. Melanoma
2. Lymphoma
3. Osteosarcoma
4. Neuroblastoma
Answer: C
Explanation: Osteosarcoma is the most commonly associated secondary malignancy in patients who have been treated for retinoblastoma, particularly those with hereditary forms.
processing of visual information, which of the following best descri ignificance of the lateral geniculate nucleus in relation to the optic tra
he LGN is the final processing stage for visual information before it hes the optic tract.
he LGN serves as a relay and processing center that receives input fro tract and sends modified signals to the visual cortex.
he LGN has no functional relationship with the optic tract and operate pendently in visual processing.
he LGN primarily processes auditory signals and has minimal involve sual information relay.
wer: B
anation: The lateral geniculate nucleus acts as a relay and processing er for visual information received from the optic tract, modifying sign re transmitting them to the visual cortex for further processing.
Question: 1086
In the bes
the s ct?
1. T
reac
2. T m the
optic
3. T s
inde
4. T ment
in vi Ans
Expl
cent als
befo
Question: 1087
A patient undergoes a fundus examination using a specialized imaging technique that captures detailed images of the retina. Which code should be reported for this diagnostic test?
A. 92202
B. 92201
C. 92250
D. 92203
Answer: C
led imaging essential for diagnosing retinal conditions.
stion: 1088
-year-old patient presents with a suspected diagnosis of primary open glaucoma. During the gonioscopy, the physician notes that the angle open but has a moderate amount of pigment deposition. Which of the wing findings would most likely be recorded during this examination?
lood vessels crossing the angle
narrow angle with appositional closure
pigmented trabecular meshwork with a normal Schwalbe's line resence of peripheral anterior synechiae
wer: C
anation: In primary open-angle glaucoma, a wide open angle with pig sition indicates that the trabecular meshwork is functioning, but the
Explanation: Code 92250 is used for fundus photography, which provides detai
Que
A 55 -
angle is
wide follo
1. B
2. A
3. A
4. P
Ans
Expl ment
depo
pigment suggests a history of increased intraocular pressure. Normal Schwalbe's line further supports a diagnosis of open-angle glaucoma.
Question: 1089
A patient is diagnosed with diabetic retinopathy and has undergone laser treatment. During the follow-up, new retinal hemorrhages are discovered. What
is the appropriate diagnosis code for this follow-up visit?
A. H35.32 B. H36.0 C. E11.359 D. H36.9
anation: The correct code is E11.359, which indicates the presence of etic retinopathy with complications. The other codes do not include th etic context.
stion: 1090
tient with a traumatic cataract undergoes a combined procedure of cat ction and vitrectomy. Which coding approach would best reflect the plexity of this surgical encounter?
se separate codes for cataract and vitrectomy without modifiers se a bundled code for combined procedures
se the higher of the two procedure codes dd a modifier to the cataract code only
wer: B
Answer: C Expl
diab e
diab
Que
A pa aract
extra com
1. U
2. U
3. U
4. A
Ans
Explanation: The best approach is to use a bundled code for combined procedures if available, as this accurately reflects the complexity and scope of the surgical encounter.
Question: 1091
amount of floaters and a dark shadow in their peripheral vision. Which condition should be suspected?
1. Uveitis
2. Cataracts
3. Glaucoma
wer: D
anation: The presence of floaters and a dark shadow (also known as a ain effect") in peripheral vision are classic signs of retinal detachment e the retina separates from the underlying tissue.
stion: 1092
onioscopy evaluation, the physician encounters a "double-hump" guration of the angle. What does this finding typically suggest about t nt's ocular condition?
seudoexfoliative glaucoma gmentary glaucoma
ngle-closure glaucoma rimary open-angle glaucoma
wer: A
Retinal Detachment Ans
Expl
"curt ,
wher
Que
In a g
confi he
patie
1. P
2. Pi
3. A
4. P
Ans
Explanation: The "double-hump" configuration seen during gonioscopy is suggestive of pseudoexfoliative glaucoma, where the exfoliative material can cause mechanical obstruction of the trabecular meshwork, leading to variations in angle appearance.
In coding for a comprehensive refraction exam, which additional test, if performed, would require the use of a separate code, such as 92065?
1. Simple visual acuity
2. Contact lens fitting
3. Detailed medical history review
wer: B
anation: Code 92065 is specifically for the fitting of contact lenses an d require a separate code from a comprehensive refraction exam.
stion: 1094
tient diagnosed with traumatic cataracts from a workplace accident rgoes surgery. The ophthalmologist documents the presence of an ocular foreign body. Which codes should be reported for this case?
66.26, 932.00
66.25, 932.01
66.24, 932.02
66.23, 932.03
wer: A
A stereopsis test Ans
Expl d
woul
Que
A pa unde intra
1. 3
2. 3
3. 3
4. 3
Ans
Explanation: The correct codes are 366.26 for traumatic cataracts and 932.00 for the intraocular foreign body, accurately documenting the complexities involved.
Question: 1095
A patient presents with astigmatism and is considering laser surgery. What is a crucial factor to evaluate before proceeding with this type of surgical intervention?
1. The patient's age
2. The degree of refractive error
3. The health of the cornea
wer: C
anation: Evaluating the health of the cornea is crucial before laser sur nditions like corneal thinning or irregularities can affect surgical omes.
stion: 1096
type of coding would be applied if a patient is referred for an MRI d pected optic nerve tumor?
0540
0543
0544
0542
wer: B
The patient's occupation Ans
Expl gery,
as co outc
Que
What ue to
a sus
1. 7
2. 7
3. 7
4. 7
Ans
Explanation: Code 70543 is used for MRI of the brain with and without contrast and would be appropriate for evaluating an optic nerve tumor.
Question: 1097
cataracts. After surgical intervention, what is the appropriate coding for the condition during the post-operative visit?
A. H25.9 B. Q12.0 C. H26.009 D. H26.1
wer: B
anation: Congenital cataracts are coded as Q12.0. The other codes do rately represent the congenital nature of the cataracts.
stion: 1098
pathway of light from the outside environment to the retina, which ture acts as the first refractive surface, and what is its primary functio
ornea; bending light to direct it toward the pupil ens; focusing light onto the retina
queous humor; maintaining pressure itreous body; stabilizing the retina
wer: A
anation: The cornea is the first refractive surface that bends light as it
Ans
Expl not
accu
Que
In the
struc n?
1. C
2. L
3. A
4. V
Ans Expl
enters the eye, directing it through the pupil toward the lens for further focusing onto the retina.
Question: 1099
follow-up services would require the use of a specific modifier to indicate that the service is unrelated to the surgical procedure?
1. Modifier 91
2. Modifier 25
3. Modifier 59
wer: D
anation: Modifier 24 is used to indicate that the follow-up service is ated to the surgical procedure performed earlier, allowing for separate ng for the visit.
Modifier 24 Ans
Expl unrel billi

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